Free download nclex review questions with rationale
Which later finding rationale this disease would the nurse not expect to see dowjload this time? The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs two 2 hours ago. The nurse should. Which of the following should free nurse implement to prepare a client for a KUB Nclex, Ureter, Bladder radiography test?
The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client seven 7 days post-myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait six rationale weeks before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question? A triage nurse has these four 4 clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes.
Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first? While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. The nurse review preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via ratiinale nasogastric feeding tube. The most cnlex action of review nurse is:.
The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of frse. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued? A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nclex should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine the quesstions goal would be to:. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from to mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats revidw minute and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells.
The nurse instructs the client to:. The nurse prepares the client for the insertion of a pulmonary ncelx catheter Swan-Ganz catheter. The nurse teaches the client that with catheter will be inserted to provide information about:. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is:.
A client with receiving digoxin Lanoxin 0. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol Questiona 25 mg B. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes qustions the postmature fetus is at risk due to:. The quesyions is caring for a client who had a total gree replacement seven 7 downliad ago. A year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week.
Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication? The nurse is caring for a year-old female client with venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing? Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward-feedback system?
The nurse is providing information to a client with multiple sclerosis on performing exercises and physical activities. The nurse determines the client needs additional teaching if the client makes which statements? Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?
The history indicates the patient has photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs is associated with photosensitive reactions? A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
A year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb? A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS.
Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take? A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? You are taking the history of a year-old girl who has a BMI of The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation.
A year-old female is admitted to the ER due to confusion. This questions has a history questjons a quesions diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of download following would you most likely suspect? Questions new mother rattionale some questions about phenylketonuria PKU.
Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU? Freee patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Doownload of the following should a nurse must closely monitor for during acute management of this patient? A year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor.
As the charge nurse, your primary responsibility for this patient is? A patient is nc,ex discharged from a skilled nursing facility SNF. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following download be the best instruction for this patient? A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect.
Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present? You free be assigned to care for the child at shift change. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase Activase, tPA.
While on the therapy, the nurse questione to prioritize which of the following? What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acids? A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the quesyions microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?
A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long do red blood cells live in my body? The correct response is:. A questiojs man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When should the discharge training and planning begin for this patient? A 5-year-old child and has been recently admitted to the hospital.
A toddler is questkons months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the toddler in? A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently free to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in? Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?
Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute? Which of the following would you A. Increased appetite expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute? Which of review following microorganisms is related to this condition?
A fragile year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over the last two 2 weeks. She is also noted to have raionale mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed? With year-old male has been losing mobility and gaining weight over the last two 2 months.
The patient also has the heater running in his downooad 24 hours a day, even on warm days. A year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. Questjons has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
It is a test to determine if the candidate possesses the minimum level of knowledge necessary to perform safe and effective entry-level nursing care. Qyestions time you answer a question, the computer reevaluates your ability based on all the previous answers and the difficulty of those test items.
Your first question is relatively easy; if you selected a correct answer, the computer supplies you with a more difficult question from its question bank. If you have selected an incorrect answer, the computer gives rational an easier question. This process continues throughout the examination until the test plan requirements are met, and the computer can determine your level of competence.
Additionally, there is no option to skip a question, you must answer it, or the test will not move on. You cannot go back and review previous questions with change answers. It quwstions a summary of the content and scope of the NCLEX to serve as a guide for candidates preparing for the exam and to direct item writers rationnale the development of nclex. Some download these categories are divided further into subcategories.
There are two subcategories under Safe and Effective Care Environment. There are four subcategories under Physiological Integrity. The exam time includes all the tutorials and all the breaks. Lastly, revirw Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equality Act, passed wuthmandates insurance coverage for mental free and psychiatric health services in a manner rationale to medical and surgical insurance coverage; it does not protect the privacy and security of technological psychiatric information, HIPAA does.
The member of the multidisciplinary team that you would most likely collaborate with when the client is at risk for falls due to an impaired gait is a physical therapist. They also provide patients with assistive aids like walkers and canes and exercise regimens. Podiatrists care for disorders and diseases of the foot; and nurse practitioners, depending on their area of specialty, may also nclex with nurses when a client is affected with a disorder in terms of gait, strength, mobility, balance, coordination, and joint range of motion, however the member of the multidisciplinary team that you would most likely collaborate with when downloaad client is at risk for falls due to an impaired gait is a physical therapist.
The member of the review team that you would most likely collaborate rationael when the client can benefit quesitons the use of adaptive rationle for eating is the occupational therapist. Many of these interventions include adaptive devices such as special eating utensils and grooming aids.
Dieticians assess, plan, implement and evaluate interventions including those relating to dietary needs of those patients who need regular or therapeutic diets. They also provide dietary education and work with other members of the healthcare need when a client has dietary needs secondary to physical download such as dysphagia; and podiatrists care for disorders and diseases of the foot.
Review primary goal of multidisciplinary case conferences is to plan care that facilitates optimal client outcomes. The member of the multidisciplinary team would you most likely collaborate with when your pediatric client has had a free amputation secondary to a terrorism blast explosion a month ago or more ago is a prosthetist.
Prosthetists, in collaboration with other members of the healthcare team, assess patients and then design, fit questions supply the patient with rstionale artificial body part such as a leg or arm prosthesis. They also follow-up with patients who have gotten a prosthesis to check and adjust it in terms of proper fit, patient download and functioning.
Pedorthists modify and provide corrective footwear and employ supportive devices to address conditions which affect the feet and lower limbs. Lastly, you may collaborate with a with ratiknale clinical nurse specialist and a pediatric nurse practitioner but this consultation and collaboration should begin qusetions upon arrival to the emergency department, and not a month after the injury.
Taking action is the phase of conflict that is characterized with individual responses to and feelings about the conflict; Approach- Approach conflicts are a type of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict want more than one alternatives or actions that could resolve donload conflict; and Approach-Avoidance conflicts are a type of conflict that occurs when the people involved in the conflict believe that all of the alternatives are NEITHER completely satisfactory or completely dissatisfactory.
Frustration is the phase of conflict that occurs when those involved in the conflict believe that their goals and needs are being blocked and not met, and not necessarily characterized with personal agendas and obstruction; conceptualization is the phase of conflict that occurs when those involved in the conflict rationalee to understand what the conflict is all about and why it has occurred.
Conflicts can be effectively resolved using review number of different strategies and techniques such as compromise, negotiation, and mediation. Avoidance of the conflict, withdrawing in addition to other rdview, competition, and accommodating others are not effective and healthy conflict resolution techniques.
The stages donwload conflict and conflict resolution in the correct sequential order are frustration, conceptualization, and taking action. The Mental Health Parity Act passed inmandates insurance coverage for mental health and psychiatric health services questions a manner similar to medical and surgical insurance coverage.
And, lastly the Americans with Disabilities Act of and the Rehabilitation Act of forbid ratioonale prohibit any discrimination against people questions disabilities. For example, they collect and analyze client data in order to fulfill their role and responsibilities in terms of process improvements and the prevention of incidents and accidents, respectively.
Case management and critical pathways may be used to facilitate the continuity of care, but frde are not the sound, timely, quetions, unfragmented rationale seamless transition of the client from one level of acuity to another. Lastly, medical necessity is necessary for reimbursement and it is one of the considerations for moving the client from one level of acuity to another but medical necessity is not the continuity of care.
With terms of priorities from 1 to 6 the conditions above are prioritized as follows:. The 3 rd level priorities include all reivew and problems that are NOT covered under the 2 nd level questions needs and the ABCs. For example, increased levels of self care abilities and skills rationale enhanced knowledge of a medical condition are considered 2 nd level free needs.
Time management skills are reviee closely related to successfully meeting the established priority needs rationale a group of clients. In addition to prioritizing and reprioritizing, downloa nurse should also have a plan of action to effectively manage their time; they should avoid unnecessary interruptions, time wasters and helping others when this helping rztionale could potentially jeopardize their own priorities of questiond.
Although good communication skills, collaboration skills and supervision are necessary for the delivery of nursing care, it is time management skills that are most closely related to successfully meeting the established priority needs of a group of clients. Morals are most closely aligned with ethics. Ethics is a set of beliefs and principles nclex guide us in terms of the right and wrong thing to do which is the most similar to ethics.
Laws and statutes defined what things are legal and what things are illegal. Lastly, client rights can serve as a factor to consider when ethical decisions are made; but they are not most closely aligned with ethics, but only, one consideration of many that can be used in ethical decision making. The two major classifications of ethical principles and ethical thought are utilitarianism and deontology.
Deontology is the ethical school of thought that requires that both the means and the end goal must be moral and ethical; and the utilitarian school of ethical thought states that the end goal nclex the means even when the means are not moral. Veracity is being completely truthful with patients; nurses must not withhold the whole truth from clients questiions when it download lead to patient distress.
Justice is fairness. Nurses must be fair when they distribute care and resources equitably, which is not always equally among a wity of patients.Oct 03, · NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test Bank. We have included more than 1,+ NCLEX practice questions covering different nursing topics for this nursing test bank!We’ve made a significant effort to provide you with the most challenging questions along with insightful rationales for each question to reinforce learning. Free NCLEX practice questions with complete rationales. Pass NCLEX exam with 75 questions. Block Time Remaining: Tutor. Test Id: Question Id: (0) 10 of A client with unstable angina and chronic kidney disease is receiving a continuous infusion of unfractionated heparin based on a heparin drip protocol. Jun 29, · NCLEX-RN Practice Test Questions. The NCLEX-RN Test Plan is organized into four major Client Needs categories. Two of the four categories are divided into subcategories as shown below: Safe and Effective Care Environment. Management of Care - 17% to 23%. Safety and Infection Control - Estimated Reading Time: 15 mins.
Beneficence is doing good and the right thing for the patient; it is nonmaleficence that is doing no harm. You would consider including some of nclex most commonly occurring bioethical concerns including genetic engineering into the course content. Self-determination is most closely aligned with the principles and concepts of informed consent.
Nurses must be fair when they distribute care and resources equitably, which is not free equally among a group of patients; fidelity is the ethical principle that requires nurses to be honest, faithful and true to their professional promises and responsibilities by providing high quality, safe care in a competent manner; and, lastly, nonmaleficence is doing no harm, as stated in the historical Hippocratic Oath.
The minimal essential components of the education that occurs prior to getting an informed consent include the purpose of the proposed treatment or procedure, the expected outcomes of the proposed treatment or procedure, and who will perform the treatment or procedure. It is not necessary to include when the treatment or procedure will be done at this time.
Prohibitions against sharing passwords are legally based on the Security Rule of HIPAA mandates administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to insure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic protected health information. This rule relates to electronic information security as well as other forms of information. The security of technological free and information in healthcare environments is most often violated by those who work there.
The vast majority of these violations occur as the result of inadvertent breaches with carelessness and the lack of thought on the part of employees. Technology is a double edged sword. Technological advances such as cell phone cameras, social networks like Facebook, telephone answering machines and fax machines pose great risk in terms of the confidentiality and the security of medical information.
Computer data deletion does not always destroy all evidence of the data; data remains. Slander is false oral defamatory statements; and libel is written defamation of character using false statements. Assault, an intentional tort, is threatening to touch a person without their consent; and battery, another intentional tort, is touching a person without their consent.
Respondeat Superior is the review doctrine or principle that states that employers are legally responsible for the acts and behaviors of its employees. Respondeat Superior does not, however, relieve the nurse of legal responsibility and accountability for their actions. They remain liable. Respondeat Superior does not mean that a nurse cannot be held liable and not libel which is a written defamation of character using false statements.
Liability is legal vulnerability. A medical license is not necessary; nurses and other healthcare professionals can be found guilty of malpractice. Lastly, download is the relationship of simultaneously changing variables. For example, a ppositive correlation exists when the two variables both increase or decrease; and a negative occurs when one variable increases and the other decreases.
The current focus of performance improvement activities is to facilitate and address optimal client outcomes. Throughout the last several decades performance improvement activities have evolved from a focus on structures to a focus with process and now, to a focus on outcomes.
Staff performance is not the focus of performance improvement activities but instead the focus of competency assessment and validation. A sentinel event is an event or occurrence, incident or accident that has led questions or may have possibly led to client harm.
Even near misses, that have the potential for harm, are considered sentinel events because they have the potential to cause harm in the future. An adverse event, like an adverse effect of a medication, has actually led to an adverse response; it is not a near miss.
A root cause is a factor download has led to a sentinel event; and there is no such thing as a healthcare acquired event. The primary purpose of root cause analysis is to discover process flaws. Root cause analysis and a blame free environment are essential rationale a successful performance improvement activity, therefore, root cause analysis does not aim to determine who erred and made a mistake.
Root cause analysis explores and digs down to the roots of the problem, its root causes and the review, not people, which are the real reasons why medical errors and mistakes are made. It is nursing assessment that determines the basic client needs and environmental surveillance that discovers environmental safety hazards, and not root cause analysis.
Questions are rarely asked. The primary distinguishing characteristic of risk management when compared and contrasted to performance improvement is that risk management activities focus on decreasing financial liability and performance improvement activities focus on process improvements. Risk management focuses on decreasing and eliminating rationale that are risky and place the healthcare organization in a position of legal liability.
Some examples of risk management activities include preventing hazards and adverse events such as patient falls and infant abduction and the legal liabilities associated with these events. The second dose of penicillin can lead to anaphylactic shock which is a form of distributive shock. It is then the second exposure or dose that leads to anaphylaxis, or anaphylactic shock.
Some of these reactions are an allergic response and others are simply a troublesome side effect. Some of the risk factors associated with falls are sedating medications, high glare, not low glare, floors and other environmental factors such as clutter and scatter rugs, not low glare floors, a history of prior falls, a fear of falling, incontinence, confusion, sensory deficits, a decreased level of consciousness, impaired reaction time, advancing age, poor muscular strength, balance, coordination, gait and range of motion and some physical disorders, particularly those that affect the musculoskeletal or neurological systems; falls are not associated with poor and impaired renal perfusion.
The home health care nurse should advise the client that the best fire extinguisher to have in the home is an ABC nclex extinguisher because this one fire extinguisher is a combination of a type A fire extinguisher, a type B and a type C, which put out all types of fires including common household solids like wood, household oils like kitchen grease and electrical fires.
They should not take any time to open window. The first questions to do when using a fire extinguisher is to pull the pin and then aim it at the base of the fire. Later, you would squeeze the trigger and sweep the spray over and over again over the base of the fire. The acronym PASS is used to remember these sequential steps.
A tornado that has touched down on the healthcare facility is an example of an internal disaster because this tornado with directly affected the healthcare facility. Tornados, cyclones, hurricanes and other severe weather emergencies can be both an internal disaster when they affect the healthcare facility and also an external disaster when they impact on the lives of those living in the community.
Hurricane Katrina refiew a good example of a weather emergency that affected not only healthcare facilities but also members of the community. It is not necessary or appropriate to notify the doctor. Mechanical lifts are used mostly for patients who are obese and cannot be safely moved or transferred by two people, and also for patients who are, for one reason or another, not able to provide download help or assistance with their lifts and transfers, such as a person who is paralyzed.
A gait or transfer belt and slide boards are assistive devices that can be used to assist with transfers and lifting however, they are not appropriate for this client as based on your assessment. Simply defined ergonomics addresses correct bodily alignment such as the lumbar curve accommodation wih an ergonomically designed chair; and body mechanics is the safe use of rationals body using the correct posture, bodily alignment, balance and bodily movements to safely bend, carry, lift and move objects and downlpad.
When the client assures the nurse that they replace their smoke alarm batteries annually to insure that they work, the assessing nurse should immediately know that the client is in need of education relating to the fact that smoke alarm batteries should be changed at least twice a year. The client has demonstrated that they are knowledgeable about food safety and environmental safety because they have expiration dates on refrigerated foods, they use the FIFO method for food safety and they do not use scatter rugs which can lead to falls.
In other words, the first foods in the pantry or refrigerator are the first foods that should be consumed or discarded. Carbon monoxide is particularly dangerous because it is clear, invisible and odorless. Carbon monoxide poisoning can occur when a person is exposed to an excessive amount of this odorless and colorless gas; it severely impairs the body to rationsle life sustaining oxygen which is the result of this deadly gas and not damage to the lungs.
This oxygen absorption deficit can lead to serious tissue damage and death. For these reasons, home carbon monoxide alarms are recommended. These dangers are associated with deoxygenation and not splenic or hepatic damage or the over production of hemoglobin. The lack of necessary supplies and equipment to adequately and safely care for patients is an example of a system variance.
A variance is defined as a deviation that leads to a quality defect or problem. A sentinel event is defined as is an event or occurrence, incident or accident that has led to or may possibly lead to client harm. Jclex effects are serious and unanticipated responses to interventions and treatments, including things like medications.
The first thing that you should do immediately after a client accident is to assess the client and the second thing you should do is render care after this assessment and not before it. Lastly, notifications to the doctor and the nurse manager are only done after the client is assessed and emergency care, if any, is rendered. You should plan an educational activity about determining what equipment should and should not be sent vownload repairs.
This data suggests that the staff members need education and training about the proper functioning of equipment used on the nursing care unit. Counseling the staff about their need to stop wasting the resources of this department is placing blame and free blame may prevent future valid returns of equipment. You should not check the equipment yourself to determine the accuracy of this equipment department because they are the experts, not you, with these matters.
You should also not ignore it because everyone can make questions innocent mistake. The issue has to be addressed and corrected. Education and training on all pieces of equipment is an essential component for insuring that medical equipment is being used safely and properly by those who you supervise.
Other essential components include validated and documented competency to use any and all pieces of equipment by a person qualified to do so, preventive maintenance and the prompt removal of all unsafe equipment from service. The assisted suicide of a client in your facility by witth spouse of the nlex is with security concern that is also a sentinel event that must be reported.
The restriction of visitors in a special care area is an effective security plan that you may want to consider for implementation within your facility. Some of the other security measures that you may want to consider include security alert systems to alert staff nckex a security breach such as security breach of the newborn nursery, the use of visitor identification badges or stickers that identify people who are authorized to be free a facility, queations circuit monitoring and alarm systems in high risk areas such as the emergency care area, automatically locking security doors, and electronic wristbands for the newborn and the mother to prevent infant abductions.
Special review and training for a group of people so that this specially trained group can act when a security breach occurs is also a good idea but it is not necessary to train all nurses or clerical staff; it is sufficient to train a limited group of people, provided an ample number of these team members are assigned and available on all tours of duty around the clock, including on holidays.
Sterile items ONLY are placed on the sterile field; coughing or sneezing over the sterile field contaminates the sterile field; and all moisture nclex wetness contaminate the sterile field. Some of the other principles that are applied to setting up and maintaining a sterile field include keeping the sterile field above the waist level and preventing coughing raationale sneezing by professional staff and the client during the set up and during the maintenance of the sterile field.
A chemical restraint: A chemical restraint is a drug used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms, according to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. The signs of infection such as the incubation, prodromal and convalescence stages, download the quextions sequential order are:. The normal assessment data for the infant at 12 months of age is that the infant dosnload doubled their birth weight at 12 months of age.
Infants are fed breast milk or formula every two to four hours with a total daily intake of 80 to mLs per kilogram of body weight. As the neonate grows, they gain five to seven ounces during the first six months and then they double their birth weight during the first year; the head circumference increases a half inch each month for six months and then two tenths of wuestions inch until the infant is one year of age.
The theory of aging that supports your belief that strict infection control prevention measures are necessary is the Immunological Theory of Aging. The elderly population is at risk for more side effects, free drug reactions, and toxicity and over dosages of medications because the elderly have a decrease in terms of their hepatic metabolism secondary to the hepatic functioning changes of the elderly secondary to a decreased hepatic blood flow and functioning.
Fetal lie can a longitudinal, transverse or oblique life. The possible fetal presentations are the cephalic presentation, the cephalic vertex presentation, the cephalic sinciput presentation, the cephalic face presentation, the cephalic brow presentation, the breech presentation, the complete breech presentation, the frank breech presentation, the shoulder breech presentation, and nclex footling presentation.
All attitudes, other than the normal attitude, can lead to a more intense and prolonged labor. You should apply the principles of initiative rationale caring for preschool children. The developmental task for preschool children is initiative, according to Eric Erickson. The expected life transition should you apply into your practice for these pediatric clients as you dwonload caring for pediatric clients of all ages is puberty.
Throughout the life span, there are several significant expected life transitions that require the person to cope and adjust. Some of these expected life transitions include puberty, maternal and paternal attachments ratinale bonding to the neonate, pregnancy, care of the newborn, parenting, and retirement. Although young children will experience separation anxiety and they will also be maintained on an immunization schedule, these are not expected life changes.
The Dimensions Model of Health includes six dimensions that impact on the client, including the community. The Spiritual Dimension is not one of these six dimensions. You would identify a client who is of Saudi Arabian ethnicity for sickle cell anemia. Other ethnicities at greatest risk for sickle cell anemia include those who are Questions, Latin Americans, Southern Europeans and some clients from some Mediterranean nations.
Targeted assessments and screenings are done in addition to routine and recommended screenings when a particular disorder has a genetic pathophysiological component for risk and when a client is presenting with a particular sign or symptom. For example, a targeted assessments relating to nutritional status may be indicated when an infant or young child is listless and not gaining weight according the established criteria; an adolescent may be target screened for visual acuity when a high school teacher reports that the teen does not seem to be able to read things on the blackboard; and a with may be target nflex when the parent reports that the child is not responding to their name.
Life style choices are the risk factors that are most likely able to be corrected. Poor life style choices place a person at risk and they are often considered also risky behaviors. As discussed before, some risks are preventable and correctable and others are not. For example, queshions, age and gender are NOT modifiable risks, but the risks associated with life style choices are modifiable, correctable and download to be eliminated when the person nclex their behavior qurstions reference to these risky behaviors.
Genetic predisposition is an innate and not correctable risk factor ratinoale an external locus of control can lead to poor life style choices, however, this is not the most likely correctable risk factor. You would not recommend the use of a transdermal contraceptive patch or a vaginal contraceptive ring for the couple because both of these contraceptive methods are contraindicated when the woman has a history of deep vein thrombosis and cigarette smoking; and you would also not recommend a diaphragm because the compliance of review couple cannot trusted because the couple has a history of the lack of adherence to medical regimens.
Scientific data now indicates that prayer is rreview for the relief of stress, anxiety and pain, and as such, may be helpful to this client. The healthcare professional would you most likely refer this family to in order to address this deficit in terms of their instrumental activities of daily living ADLs is a social worker.
The with rationalee daily living are differentiated rationaale terms of the basic activities of daily living and the instrumental activities of daily living. Examples of basic activities of daily living include things like bathing, mobility, ambulation, toileting, personal care and hygiene, grooming, dressing, and eating. The instrumental activities of daily living are more advanced than the basic activities of daily living.
The instrumental activities of daily living include things like grocery shopping, housework, meal preparation, the communication with others using something like a telephone, and having transportation. Deficits in terms of the instrumental activities of daily living are best addressed by a social worker. For example, the social worker may questions the client in terms of their transportation and they can also teach the client about how to grocery shop, for example.
The olfactory cranial nerve is a sensory nerve that transmits the sense of smell to the olfactory foramina of the nose; the optic cranial nerve is also a sensory nerve and it transmits the sense of vision from the retina to the brain. The trochlear cranial nerve is a motor nerve that innervates eye ball movement and the superior oblique muscle of the eyes; and the abducens cranial nerve is a motor nerve that innervates and controls the abduction of the eye using the lateral rectus muscle.
The oculomotor cranial nerve is a motor nerve controls eye movements, the sphincter of the pupils and the ciliary body muscles; it has no sensory function. The facial cranial nerve is a motor and sensory nerve which controls facial movements, some salivary glands and gustatory sensations from free anterior part of the tongue.
And, lastly, the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve is both a motor and sensory nerve that gives us the sense of taste from the posterior tongue, and it also innervates the parotid glands. A Taylor hammer, not a Taylor test, is used to check reflexes like the biceps and triceps reflexes; the Babinski sign occurs when the foot goes into dorsiflexion and the great toe curls up; this sign is an abnormal nclex to this stimulation and it can indicate the presence of deep vein thrombosis.
Inspection is typically the first step and percussion of the abdomen should be done prior to any palpation, particularly deep palpation. The five types of sounds that are review during percussion are flatness, resonance, hyperresonance, tympany and dullness.
Dullness is heard when percussion is done over a solid organ like the liver and spleen. Flatness is normally assessed over muscles and bones; resonance is a hollow sound that is heard, for example, over the air filled lungs; and hyperresonance, which is a booming sound that is heard over abnormal lung tissue, as occurs among clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease COPD ; and, lastly, tympany is heard over the stomach with air as a drum like sound.
A comprehensive health assessment includes download complete medical history, a general survey rationale a complete physical assessment. Although a complete medical history is done using a client interview and a significant other interview for much data, it is the health history and not the interview that is part of the comprehensive health assessment.
A focused assessment is done as based on some pathology, sign or symptom and it is not considered a part of a comprehensive health assessment. Dullness is a thud like sound and not a hollow sound. Tympany is a drum like sound; and resonance is a hollow sound. A pregnant woman and a husband who was physically abused as a young child is the couple is at most risk for domestic violence because pregnancy and a personal prior history of abuse are two commonly occurring risk factors among abused woman and male abusers, respectively.
Current research indicates that abuse and neglect affect all people questions all ages and of all socioeconomic classes including the wealthy as well as the poverty stricken. Other patient populations at risk of abuse and neglect include female gender, infants, children, the cognitively impaired, the developmentally challenged, the elderly and those with physical or mental disabilities; some of the other traits and characteristics associated with abusers include substance related use rationale abuse, a psychiatric mental health disorder, poor parenting skills, poor anger management skills, poor self-esteem, poor coping skills, poor impulse control, immaturity, and the presence of downloac current crisis.
The first thing that you should do to prevent violence towards others is to establish trust with the client. The first step in the nurse-client relationship is to establish trust in this therapeutic relationship. Without trust future collaboration, interventions and client outcomes cannot be accomplished to facilitate appropriate and safe behaviors.
Lastly, sedating medications to prevent violence are also with the first things that are done. Amphetamines and hallucinogenic drugs like LSD are often associated with psychological dependence. Substance abuse does not include prescribed medications, such as narcotic pain medications, that are being used for medical reasons; however, these same medications when used after there is no longer a medical need to use them is considered substance abuse.
Contrary to popular opinion, addiction can occur with and without physical dependence. Physical dependence occurs downlowd the cessation of a drug causes adverse physical effects; these ill effects are typically greater and more intense when the wigh of the drug is rapid and abrupt.
Some of the drugs that are most often associated with physical dependence include cocaine, opioid drugs, alcohol and benzodiazepines. As previously stated, physical dependence does not necessarily rationale addiction; addiction can be present with or without any physical dependency.
This model describes self care needs and abilities as wholly compensatory, fee compensatory and supportive educative. Lastly, biomedical models address pathology, impairments and the manifestations of impairments that can be cured or lead to death. Dissociation is the psychological ego defense mechanism occurs when the client detaches and review with person or time to avoid the stress until they are ready to cope with it.
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Displacement allows the person to ventilate and act out on their anger in a less harmful and a more socially acceptable manner. A client uses the ego defense mechanism of sublimation when they transform and replace unacceptable urges and feelings into a socially acceptable urge or feeling.
A client is using reaction formation when the client acts and behaves in a manner that is completely the polar opposite of their true feelings. Caring consists of the following 10 nursing interventions that demonstrate genuine caring. Other goals are the freedom for guilt, spiritual distress and pain at the end of life; therefore, these diagnoses are not expected.
Additionally, the administration of an antiemetic to prevent vomiting is not indicated because there is no evidence in this question that the client is actually vomiting. After this statement, you should also educate the grandparents about questions fact that group and family therapy is often indicated when the family unit is affected with stressors and dysfunction because family members may not fully understand the need for the entire family unit to participate when only one member of the family is adversely affected with a stressor and poor coping and that all family members are affected when only one rationale of the family unit is adversely affected.
This theory has four tasks that people go through after the loss of a loved one. Lastly, Lewin developed theories of change, leadership and conflict and NOT a theory related to grief after the loss of a loved one. Behavioral psychotherapy is particularly useful among clients who are adversely affected with phobias, substance related disorders, and other addictive disorders.
Some of the techniques that are used with behavioral therapy include operant conditioning as put forth by Skinner, aversion therapy, desensitization therapy, modeling and complementary questions alternative stress management techniques. This therapy is not conducted by registered nurses but, instead, by experienced psychotherapists.
The client religion that is the most pertinent to the role of the admissions coordinator of hospital who assigns the rooms and beds of clients who will be admitted is the Islam religion which requires that the followers face Mecca for daily prayer, therefore, Islam clients should be placed in a room that faces the holy city of Mecca.
Free most religions impact on the care of the client, only Islam is pertinent to the admissions coordinator. Other religions practices and free impact on health care are shown below:. Delirium is characterized with a sudden and nclex onset of episodic and free periods of time vacillating between periods of impaired cognition and periods of mental clarity.
Visual hallucinations are a sign of delirium and delirium can result from a questions of different causes including dehydration and anticholinergic medications. The signs and symptoms of sensory overload do not include visual hallucinations and a sudden and abrupt onset of episodic and intermittent periods of time vacillating between periods of impaired cognition and periods of mental clarity.
Instead, the signs and symptoms of sensory overload include anxiety, restlessness, sleep deprivation, fatigue, poor review solving and decision making skills, poor performance, and muscular tension. There is no evidence in this question that the client has psychotic symptoms related to a previously undiagnosed psychosis; all the evidence substantiates the suspicion that the client is affected with delirium.
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of this educational series is to collect baseline blood pressure readings prior to the beginning of this educational review and then collect and compare blood pressure data during the series and with the series with completed. This technique entails evaluating the outcomes of the education in terms of changes in the client and it also includes formative evaluation during the series and summative evaluation at the end of the series.
Collecting baseline blood pressure readings prior to review beginning of this educational series and then collecting and comparing blood pressure data after the series is completed gives us only summative evaluation; it does not provide you with formative evaluation. Because the primary goal of this series is to lower the blood pressures of clients through the use of stress management techniques, asking the clients how often they use the stress management techniques that they have learned during this educational series and using a questionnaire at the end of the series that asks the participants how they liked the class and what they learned during this educational series does not reflect data and information about the effectiveness of the classes in terms of reducing the blood pressures of hypertensive clients.
These legal documents typically include choices relating to cardiopulmonary resuscitation CPRmechanical ventilation, intravenous solution administration, life support measures and tube feedings. A durable power of attorney for health care, also referred to as a healthcare surrogate or healthcare proxy, is a legally appointed person who will make decisions relating to healthcare when the client is no longer competent and able to give legal, informed consent.
A Stage II pressure ulcer damages the epidermis and part of the dermis. A Stage I pressure ulcer remains intact and the skin doesn't briefly lighten or blanch when touched. It is also characterized with slough and eschar. The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital cardiac disorder that is classified as a cyanotic, rather than acyanotic, congenital heart disorder that is characterized with abnormal cardiac anomalies.
There is no relationship between the Tetralogy of Fallot and reflexes or breastfeeding. Evisceration, or the protrusion of an organ through a wound, most often occurs in the abdominal wall. Serosanguineous describes the thin, red exudate produced by a surgical wound and dehiscence is the separation of a surgical incision.
Exuded is another name for discharged in reference to the exudate. It is used for pediatric patients who are three years of age and older. One of the hazards of immobility is the loss of calcium from the bones that results from non weight bearing by the immobilized patient. Other complications, or hazards, of immobility include muscle weakness, muscular atrophy, contractures, disuse download, hypostatic pneumonia, pooled respiratory secretions, atelectasis, decreased respiratory movement, decreased, not increased, vital capacity, shallow respirations, diminished cardiac rationale, orthostatic hypotension, venous stasis, venous vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, emboli, dependent edema, stiff and painful joints, thrombophlebitis, urinary stasis, renal stones, urinary retention, urinary incontinence, urinary tract infections, pressure ulcers, diminished metabolic rate, a negative, not positive, nitrogen balance, a negative calcium balance, constipation and depression.
A higher-frequency of feedings help babies compensate for the lower caloric density of the milk. Prolactin is a protein that is best known for its role in enabling females to produce milk, but it also has other functions, such as regulating the immune system. Progesterone has many roles relating to the development of the fetus during pregnancy.
Estrogens are best known for their importance in both menstrual and estrous reproductive cycles. Colostrum is the most nutrient dense part of breast milk produced during the postpartum stage. Hypoglycemia is an acute complication of diabetes which can be life threatening. The immediate treatment with glucose is necessary to preserve life. Retinopathy, neuropathy and impaired rationale are examples of the long term, rather than acute, complications of diabetes.
Sutures and staples can be removed within 7 to 10 days if healing has been sufficient and while this removal tends to reduce the amount of dressing supplies needed after removal, a light dressing may still be necessary. Vesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds. Rales, fine and coarse, rhonchi and wheezes are all abnormal, adventitious breath sounds.
Although the first degree burn can cause pain, it is the second degree burn that is the most painful of all. There is a lack of pain with third and fourth degree burns because these burns have destroyed pain sensory nerves. Most babies should have doubled their birth weight by 6 months, but many free have doubled their birth weight by 5 months of age.
Newborns gain about five to seven ounces per week for the first 3 to 4 months of life. By their first birthday, many babies have tripled their birth weight. The client should tuck the chin when swallowing rather than tilting the head back. Thin fluids and liquids, like water, are thickened prior to drinking to prevent chocking.
Tilting the head back is dangerous. A woman can review indefinitely; however, it puts them at risk of developing osteoporosis due to the calcium depletion from the bones and teeth. Letting the baby wean itself is ideal. Ideally, all babies should be exclusively breastfed for six months with the gradual introduction of solid foods while continuing to breastfeed.
Most women in the United States stop breastfeeding following the twelfth month of life. The Tetralogy of Fallot consists of a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right, not left, ventricular hypertrophy, and right, not left, ventricular outflow. Pulmonary atresia is not one of the anatomical malformations included in the Tetralogy of Fallot.
Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules are the signs and symptoms of download arthritis. Histoplasmosis, a fungal infection, is characterized with fever, chills, cough, chest pain, joint pain, mouth sores and erythema modosum.
Lastly, the signs and symptoms of Pneumocystis jirovec, among others, can include fever, shortness of breath, rapid breathing and a dry cough. The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve. This nerve controls and provides motor innervation to the tongue muscles. The other 11 of the 12 cranial nerves and their functions are listed below:.
Visual acuity is tested with the Snellen Chart among adult patients. The Moro reflex is a primitive, childhood reflex that disappears long before adolescence and at about 3 months after birth. The Moro reflex is also referred to as the startle reflex. Other primitive, infant reflexes are the sucking, rooting, step, tonic neck, Galant, grasp and parachute reflexes.
An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is at greatest risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease which results from the overuse of the rationale and is characterized with patellar tendon inflammation. Other sports that questions lead to this disease include running, basketball and gymnastics.
Mesothelioma results from asbestos exposure. Lastly, immobility, low birth weight and low gestational age are not associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease. Since there are 2. An episiotomy is a surgical incision of the perineum and the posterior vaginal wall to quickly enlarge the opening for the baby to pass through; this incision prevents tearing during a vaginal delivery.
The releasing of the red plug is known as the bloody show. The baby delivered through an incision in the abdomen is a Caesarian with. Umbilical severance or cutting and clamping of the cord both apply to the procedure of separating mother and child after childbirth.
An average full-term newborn requires calories per kilogram of weight each day to grow into a healthy child. For example, if a newborn weighs 4. From the most to the least state of consciousness are alert, confused, lethargic, obtunded, stuporous and comatose. During the progressive stage of shock, histamine is released, fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
The initial stage of shock is marked with hypoxia with an increase in lactic acid; the compensatory stage of shock is characterized with hyperventilation and rises in the blood pH. The progressive stage of shock is also characterized review the leakage of potassium ions, the buildup of sodium ions and increasingly more severe metabolic acidosis.
The refractory, or final, rationale of shock becomes irreversible. Stage II, commonly referred to as the excitement stage, is the stage of anesthesia when the patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity period; at this time, auditory and physical stimuli must be avoided to reduce the risk of increased tachycardia during nclex stage.
Types B and O blood, Rh-negative blood and leukemia are not risk factors associated with deep vein thrombosis. Water, in lesser volumes, also leaves the body by way of lung expiration, skin perspiration, and through the intestines. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency and it is characterized with eye pain, nausea and vomiting, blurry vision and halos.
The signs and symptoms of primary open-angle glaucoma are the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision. Bubbles are placed to treat retinal detachments, another nclex emergency and download peripheral iridotomy to decrease intraocular pressure is used for the treatment of glaucoma.
A cavity containing pus surrounded by download tissue is free abscess. An abscess is typically formed as a result of suppuration in a localized infection. Cellulitis is an infection of the skin characterized by heat, pain, erythema, and edema. Extravasation is the passage, or escape of blood, serum, or lymph fluids into the tissues.
A band of scar tissue that binds together two surfaces that are typically separated is an adhesion. You would adjust the intravenous fluid rate to deliver 20 drops of the normal saline every minute. This calculation is performed as below. Allergy, bleeding, cortisone, diabetes, and emboli ABCDE is a mnemonic that is often used to readily remember some of the serious disorders and risks associated with the perioperative.
Allergies to medicines or environment, bleeding tendencies, cortisone or steroid use, diabetes mellitus, and previous embolic events are some of these. The Glasgow Scale assesses for altered levels of consciousness. People of all ages can be affected with it, however, it is most common among members of the pediatric population.
You should sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex when reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient. For example, if you are instructing the patient about coughing and deep breathing, you should begin the instruction by demonstrating normal breathing, then deep breathing and finally combining deep breathing with coughing.
You should not assume that the patient knows little or nothing about the topic, you should determine what they know. It is not necessary to have the patient call their significant other so you can instruct them; this is only necessary when the patient is not able to understand the instructions. Lastly, you download not use medically oriented terms and medical jargon, but instead, terms that the patient understands.
This patient is experiencing the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock which is a severe life threatening allergic response that is often associated with a penicillin allergy or hypersensitivity. The first thing you should do is stop the intravenous flow and respond to this medical emergency nclex can lead to death. The normal potassium level is 3.
A patient with a blood potassium level of 9. Medications, such as Kayexalate, are administered to rid the body of excessive potassium and emergency kidney dialysis may also be done to prevent life threatening cardiac arryhythmia and death. Potassium supplementation is used with hypokalemia and not hyperkalemia; calcium supplementation and parenteral nutrition have no therapeutic effects for the treatment of hyperkalemia.
Vitamin C aids in the absorption of iron, and orange juice is a reliable source of Vitamin C. Green beans, milk, or baked potatoes do not support the absorption of iron; they do not contain the necessary vitamin C. Withdrawal, drug tolerance and physical dependence do not indicate addiction as many people believe.
All the other statements are incorrect and myths relating to pain and pain management medications. This disorder is a sex-linked inherited genetic skeletal muscle wasting disorder and it is the most severe and most common of all dystrophies. Osteomyelitis is an infection with the bone. Talipes is a deformity of the foot and ankle and it is physically discernible.
Septic arthritis is an infection of a joint that will also show visible signs of its presence. Adjuvant medications, used to increase the effects of the opioids and nonopioid medications. These medications include anxiolytics, anesthetics, anticonvulsants, nonsteroidal analgesic medications and topical local anesthetics.
Some of these medications, like ibuprophen, are available over the counter and they act on pain by deadening the nerve endings in nclex skin. Invasive local anesthetics are also used for severe pain, as below. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that entails the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms such as body temperature, sweating, heart rate, blood pressure, muscle tension and sweating.
The normal and expected parameters for the neonate in terms of head circumference is The other normal questions are:. Patients with giant cell arteritis are treated low dose aspirin and high-dose prednisone. Giant cell arteritis is an inflammatory condition that affects medium and large vessels, including with temporal artery and the carotid artery.
Methotrexate is used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, not arteritis; and albuterol is an inhaled medication that is used for the treatment of bronchitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease COPD. Of all the choices above, the only correct fact about wound irrigation is that it allows the application of medications in solution.
Introducing prescribed medications in solution form can dramatically reduce infection risks and facilitating proper wound heal.
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Unfortunately, the irrigation process can greatly increase the pain in a wound area. Wound irrigation can reduce the spread of infection, but not by increasing the area cleaned. The complications resulting by a hematoma are reduced through wound irrigation and not by pushing into other tissue.
Adults are assessed by using the Rule of Nines and not the Rule of Tens. Lastly the Parkland Formula is rationwle to determine the fluid needs of burn patients and not to determine rationa,e extent of their burns. Clear liquids are the most appropriate choice for any postoperative patient.
If the client tolerates these choices well, qeustions diet may proceed to full liquids. Eventually, solid foods will be added to his diet. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura is bleeding disorder that is characterized with too few platelets, qhestions the over production of platelets.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation DIC is characterized with blood coagulation and not bleeding. The treatments of idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura can include immune system depressants, not stimulants, prednisone, high-dose gamma globulin and anti RhD therapy. An avulsion fracture pulls a part of the fractured bone from the ligament or tendon.
A complete fracture is one with which the whole cross section of the bone is fractured; a compound or opened fracture pierces through the skin; a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease or disorder not physical trauma or stressors. Lastly, a greenstick fracture is a skeletal bone fracture that affects only one side of review bone.
A low birth weight is less than 2, g at the time of delivery. Diabetes insipidus is the result of a pituitary gland disorder although it can questions occur as the result of a brain infection or tumor as well as a closed head trauma that impacts on the pituitary gland. Diabetes insipidus is a lack of antidiuretic hormone secretion from the pituitary gland and the signs and symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, hypernatremia and dehydration.
You would place your patient in the Trendelenberg position when they are experiencing the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock. This position places the legs of the patient higher than the head and it increases the return of the blood in the extremities back into the circulating blood, thus increasing blood volume and the blood pressure, in addition to other necessary emergency measures.
The supine, left lateral and right lateral positions do not produce this effect. Vernix is creamy substance that protects the skin, milia are the tiny white bumps found on the nose and cheeks, and vibrissea are the small hairs found in the nasal vestibule of the newborn. Effacement is the softening and thinning of the cervix; dilation is the free of the cervix.
The symphysis is the midline joint connecting the left and right pubic bones. Hyperplasia is the increase of tissue that results from cell proliferation, such as when the milk-secreting glandular cells in the breast experience growth and multiplication as a response to pregnancy. The shoulder normally has degree circumflexion. It can move in a complete circle.
The other joints are capable of flexion and extension. Catheter related infection is the rationale commonly occurring healthcare associated infection, therefore, these infections are the greatest risk for patients. For this reason, indwelling urinary nclex are used only when necessary and, then, they remain in place for the briefest period of time possible.
Pneumonia, intravenous line catheters and C. Auscultation is listening to the sounds of the body, particularly the apical pulse for rate and irregularity, using a stethoscope. Inspection is the purposeful and systematic visual inspection and examination of the client. In order to determine one and two point discrimination, the nurse gently pricks areas of the skin and the client states whether or not they feel these pricks while their eyes are closed.
Both fine and gross motor coordination are not tactile sensations but instead indications of muscular function. Lastly, stereognosis is a tactile sensation and it has no role in hearing. The nurse then asks the person to identify the familiar object. A computer hacking episode is considered an internal disaster.
It threatens patient privacy of information and the secure ongoing manner of communication within the healthcare facility. Other internal disasters include utility failures, a power outage, workplace violence and a tornado or other environmental threat. A fall is an incident, accident and sentinel event.
The spread of infections, like pneumonia, is an infection control concern but not considered an internal disaster. Unexpected staff absences disrupt the facility but they are not considered internal disaster. Jean Piaget is credited with the stages of cognitive development from infancy until the age of twelve. The review or other diversional item or activity that is most appropriate for your 18 month old patient is a beach ball.
This ball is safe for the child. It is too large for the child to put into their mouth and it is not sharp, like pickup sticks are. A story book is not appropriate because the child is not yet able to read and an interactive play session is not appropriate because children of this age do not interact in play, instead, they engage in side by side play, also referred to as parallel play.
A persistent vegetative state leaves the client with no cognitive functioning but only basic functions such as a sleep — wake cycle and eye opening. Locked in syndrome is characterized with retained cognitive functioning but absent motor functioning. This patient is able to communicate with eye movements and they are typically aware of their surroundings.
Brain death is defined as the state where there is a known irreversible cause of the coma, a complete loss of all brainstem reflexes, complete unresponsiveness to eternal stimuli and the absence of respiratory function with the presence of hypercapnea. Obtunded patients respond slowly to stimulation.
Let's get started Select the member of the healthcare download that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member. Correct Response: C Speech and language therapists assess and treat patients with a swallowing disorder; they also assess and treat patients with speech and communication problems as often occurs after a cerebrovascular accident, or stroke.
Correct Response: C Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with cachexia. Which disease decreases the metabolic rate? With Response: B Hypothyroidism causes a decreased metabolic demand, so fewer calories are required. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function?
Correct Rationale B The brachial pulse is the most accessible pulse on an infant and, therefore, it is the site of choice. Correct Response: B The patient should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing because this position allows the patient to be better able to splint the incision with a pillow which provides abdominal support during coughing.
Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply. Correct Response: B,C,E Surgical asepsis is used when managing central line intravenous medication administration, when donning sterile gloves in the operating room and when inserting an indwelling Foley catheter. What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities?
Correct Response: C The ultimate purpose of quality improvement activities is to identify process flaws and then to change the process so that it is fail proof. The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is: Insures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience.
Mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification download not. Is legally mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not. Renewed every two years and a nursing certification is renewed every five years. Correct Response: C The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is legally mandated by the states and NOT the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification is not mandated.
What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy? Correct Response: A Dietary roughage or fiber with sufficient fluids and exercise may help relieve constipation. You are the LPN working on 2 east with adult medical surgical patients.
Your unit has been instructed to perform a horizontal evacuation of your patients because there is a nclex on 1 east. Where will you evacuate your patients to? Correct Response: C You would evacuate your patients to west. Which electrolyte is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities?
Correct Response: B Magnesium is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities and it is also needed for cardiac and skeletal free excitability. As you are working you suspect that another licensed practical nurse is verbally and physically abusing a patient. What is the first questions that you will do?
Correct Response: D Nurses and other healthcare providers are mandated by law to report all suspected abuse and neglect. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are with of performing self care? What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal physical examination?
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Correct Response: C A urinalysis is considered routine during the prenatal examination. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a: Possible sign of pregnancy. Presumptive sign wiht pregnancy. Probable sign of pregnancy. Positive sign of pregnancy. Correct Response: C Questuons positive pregnancy test and changes in the reproductive organs are both considered probable signs of pregnancy.
Select all of the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Correct Response: C,E,F,G The signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism include heat intolerance, increased appetite, palpitations and insomnia among others such as thinning hair, the loss of hair, increased sweating, weight loss, emotional instability and diarrhea.
Which of the following is the best worded questios outcome? What is a major difference between a problem oriented medical record and a source oriented medical record? The problem oriented medical system consists of narrative progress notes and the source oriented medical record uses SOAP. The source oriented medical system uses charting by exception and the source oriented medical record system does not.
Which of the following are necessary elements rationxle malpractice? Correct Response: A,D,E,F The necessary elements of malpractice are a duty to the patient, a breach of duty, foreseeability, causation, and patient harm. Select the following fire emergency interventions in correct sequential order.
Pull the fire alarm. Contain the fire. Rescue patients in danger. Extinguish the fire. You are preparing a sterile field for a operating questions surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field? When you have placed a sterile item only 1 sownload and not 2 inches from the edge of the sterile field When you have completely finished the field.
You cannot stop the set up until it is all done. Correct Response: D You must stop the preparation revew the sterile field and begin all over again when you have frer your revidw body away from the quwstions because qquestions technique has been reveiw and the sterility of the field has been rationale even when on turns away from the sterile field even for a second.
Review teeth should be placed in: Normal saline. Rdview water. Warm water. Correct Response: C Avulsed teeth should be immediately placed in milk. You are working in a pediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise.
Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age? Correct Response: D According to Erik Erikson, a developmental psychologist, the preschool free is challenged with initiative, the development of confidence and a sense of purpose. The other with groups along the life span and their developmental tasks are listed below: Infant: Trust Toddler: Autonomy, self control and will power School Age Child: Quesyions, self-confidence and competency Adolescent: Identity formation and a sense of self Young Adult: Intimacy, affection and love Middle Aged Adult: Generativity, productivity and concern about others Older Adults: Ego integrity, wisdom and satisfaction with life.
The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from: Weeks 1 wtih Weeks 1 to Weeks 3 to 5. Weeks 6 to Correct Response: D The embryonic period begins around week 6, following the ovulation period of weeks 1 to 2 and the cell division and implantation period from weeks 3 to 5. Place these human needs in download from the greatest priority to the least priority using 1 as the greatest priority and 5 as the least of all in quesgions of priority.
Correct Response: E,C,D,A,B According to Abraham Maslow, the hierarchy of human needs from the most basic and necessary to the least priority are the physiological or biological needs, the safety and psychological needs, the need for love and belonging, self esteem and the esteem by others and self actualization.
During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood? Which of the following is a vector of infection? Correct Response: D An infectious fly is an example of a vector that can transmit infection. Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding?
Correct Response: B Oral candidiasis is characterized with yellow or white spots on the nclex mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding, therefore, no attempts to remove these spots should be done. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis? Correct Response: C Of all of the above types of cancer, it is pancreatic cancer that has the poorest prognosis.
States throughout our nation vary somewhat in terms of things rational nursing ragionale can and cannot legally do. Which statements about these state to state differences are accurate? Nursing assistants can change catheter tubings but not catheters Nursing assistants can change sterile dressings Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states.
Nursing assistants cannot assess the physical status of the patients. Nursing assistants can apply topical medication lotions to intact skin. The trend is moving toward nurses only staffing patterns. Correct Response: C,D Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states. A cesarean mode of delivery, often utilized for various reasons, is the most common mode for females with which pelvic type?